And what he said is a distortion of the later claim that he did.
He did NOT refer to the Libya attack specifically. IN CONTEXT, when he was speaking in the Rose Garden, he referred to acts of terror, in general, NOT Benghazi. This is substantiated by his later inability to call Libya an act of terrorism, when he was asked point blank, not just later that day, in an interview, when he was on the show "The View". THAT'S A FACT
So, since that fact is established, are you still defending that he called Libya an act of terrorism the day after?