It is the exchange of privately owned property. Why shouldn't it be considered capitalism?
I don't recall Brass saying that it was privately owned. Regardless, it
could occur in a capitalist system but it isn't the definition of capitalism.
That assumes that Pinochet's Chile was an example of freedom of market. Oh, and the link between Pinochet and Friedman is minuscule. I recommend checking out Brian Doherty's article, "The Economist and the Dictator", about Friedman, Pinochet and Chile over at Reason Online.
Yes, yes I know that Friedman only spoke there once, but his students were the economic advisors to Pinochet and Augusto loved the little economist. I've heard this defended from more directions that I'd ever thought possible, from complete non-association (Pin-who?) to intense worship of both (And lo, the Lord came and tooketh both Augusto and Milton into paradise). OK, I exaggerate a little. Yet, monetarism proved costly to many people both in Chile and around the world.
Interest rates and exchange rates are artificial in that they are not naturally occurring things. Money or property does not earn interest by itself.
By that same notion, money and property are not naturally occurring things. Both are concepts created by man. To remove interest rates and exchange rates, cornerstones of today's financial sector as not being central to capitalism strikes me as being intellectually dishonest.
The time value of money exists because people tend to prefer a sum of money now rather than the same sum of money in the future, and therefore there needs to be a reason to invest money, which leads us to the concepts of interest and the time value of money.
Exactly. There must be a reason to invest money, right? Without that, how does capitalism function? You shouldn't mistake capitalism for a simple bartering society. It simply does not function that way.