I did not say they were not enemy combatants. Let's try this again. In other wars they were granted prisoner of war status.[/color
No, they were not. POW status, as outlined in the Geneva convention as I recall, regards such a prisoner as one uniformed, representative of a particular government...THUS the term enemy combants and NOT POW's in this case. They are however prisoners taken during a war, and as such can and SHOULD be held indefinately, just as prisoners in prior wars were.
So what is being done now, whether or not the current "enemy combatants" should be considered "prisoners of war", is not just as has been done in every other war. So your position, in point of fact, does not stand up to even a first glance scrutiny.
Asked and answered already, Prince
You care to cite me the provisions within the Constitution that demonstrate how it is to apply to every person on this globe? Or better yet, the provision that demonstrates how the U.S.'s Constitution trumps any other country's piece of Government control.
Why would I do that? Why would I bother supporting claims I never made?
Because you're the one implying how our Constitution apparently reaches out globally. That's why. Something about how your questioning me in citing that the American Constitution is speciific to Americans. Ball in your court
Acknowledging that our American Constitution is specific to Americans does not equate to me not supporting it.
Perhaps, but that does make me question your understanding of it.
Which again prompts the query, where in the Constitution does it apply to all other citizens of any other country.
Seems to me the Bill of Rights applies to the government, meaning its actions are restricted regarding more than merely U.S. citizens. The language of the Bill of Rights makes this, imo, quite clear, indicating a definite intent on the part of the people who wrote it.
By all means, show me where
Well, there is not a single clause in the Bill of Rights that says "this is for U.S. citizens only" or some variation thereof. That's for starters. The Preamble to the Bill of Rights says, "The Conventions of a number of the States, having at the time of their adopting the Constitution, expressed a desire, in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers, that further declaratory and restrictive clauses should be added: And as extending the ground of public confidence in the Government, will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution." Notice in there the word "restrictive". Does the Bill of Rights restrict the people or the government? The First Amendment says, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances." Notice there that the language of the amendment is clearly placing a restriction on Congress. The Second Amendment says, "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." Notice that last part, "shall not be infringed." By whom shall it not be infringed? The federal government, obviously. Do I need to keep going?
Yes, since you're trying to answer the question with a negative. You appear to be referencing that because our U.S. constitution doesn't specifically state only U.S. citizens, then that means it must apply to everyone. Can't be assumed in any way the logic of the U.S. Constitution being specific to U.S. citizens. Naaaa, it's a "living document", free to be reinterpreted on the fly, as we see fit.
![Undecided :-\](http://debategate.com/new3dhs/Smileys/default/undecided.gif)
The "Rights of the People" amount to nothing if it can't be protected, Prince. It doesn't require a military Government to do that, it requires what we already have, a Constitution that spells out precisly the functions AND limitations of the Government are.
Okay, I'm going to repeat myself again, because clearly you didn't quite get it the first time. The primary (please note that there no use of the word "only") function of the federal government is to protect the rights of the people. If it was to protect the country, a military government would have been established, not a democratic republic with specific limits on the government (a.k.a. the Bill of Rights).
And you can NOT protect the "Rights of the People" withOUT protecting this country. According to you, other wars were apparently unecessary, since the Fed needed to focus their attention on "protecting the rights of the people" rather than protecting the country. Chicken <--> egg kinda thing