<<Except a good portion of the intelligentsia that were killed by the Soviets were Jews, so if killing Jews was bad then the Soviets were bad. Your rationale for excusing the Soviets just doesn't hold water.>>
The obvious distinction is that the Polacks were antisemitic bastards who killed the Jews because they were Jews and for no other reason. The U.S.S.R. liquidated intellectuals, Jewish and other, for anti-state activities, support of or from foreign powers, political unreliability and for being enemies of the people or enemies of the Revolution.
The 40-odd Jews lynched by mobs in Kielce, for example, weren't tried on charges, or accused of anything. The local Poles found out that Jewish survivors of the Holocaust were being housed in a local residence and decided on their own to finish the job that Hitler had started. The new Communist government, once it took power, did not support the action, but to the contrary, rounded up and executed the mob's ringleaders, earning Communism even more hatred from the common Polish people and their Catholic priests and bishops.
Being Jewish does not and should not confer any immunity for crimes and betrayals. If intelligensia oppose the Revolution, support the enemies of the people, or espouse an underlying loyalty to a foreign ideology (Zionism for example) then they become "enemies of the people" and deserve to be punished as such. Again, there may have been errors in which Jewish and other intelligensia may have been falsely accused and wrongfully punished, but it should be obvious to any person of even moderate intelligence that there is a huge gap between what the Polish anti-Semites did and what the Russian guardians of the Revolution were attempting to do. There has to be some kind of major distinction drawn between judicial error and massive deliberate murder.
