>>Going by this definition then, every possible combination of "physical laws" exist *in theory* and therefore your argument that "there is a finite number of causes to a finite number of effects" is wrong? You're either wrong on the one side, or the other.<<
Not at all. There is a finite number of causes to a finite number of effects in this universe but in another universe things that are not possible here might be possible in that one. However, that universe would also have only a finite number of possibilities within it. Further, the laws that might exists in that universe would also be a theoretical possibility before the universe was created. Further still, that does not mean that an infinite number of universes, with differing laws with in them, is a possibility.
This maybe over your head Ami, but I appreciate the effort. It's the only way for you to learn. However, try opening up your mind a tad.
bsb