So, in your opinion, rights are merely abstract concepts? I am curious as to how that does not leave rights as merely what society says they are (which, in my opinion, would mean they are privileges and not rights).
Yes, rights are abstract concepts. That doesn't mean they are unimportant, but I don't see them as fundamental or anything upon which to build a political philosophy. They may be left up to the whims of society (as often happens in a democracy) or left up to a monarch, dictator, oligarchy, corporations, state police, the military (as we see in Iraq).
So, the philosophy requires the notion of property rights to prop it up and is not built upon a foundation of property rights? Or am I misunderstanding?
Some political philosophies require property rights to be their fundamental starting point, but it is (in my opinion) an abstract point of origin.
Not that I agree with Thatcher's sentiment, but the idea of property rights as fundamental indicates to me that it was, to Thatcher, a building block and not a prop.
I'm not saying that it is a "prop," but there is no clear reason for it to be a starting point for one's political philosophy (or any philosophy). In fact the entire concept of rights as inalienable does not necessarily follow as an ideological starting point. To me, and again you asked me what I think, it smacks of utopianism.
Well you may not hold those truths as self-evident, but the people signed the document apparently did.
I don't disagree with that. Yet, the phrase "we find these truths to be self-evident" is the intellectual equivalent of "because I said so." There's no more inherent truth to the founding father's statement of these "truths" than to Louis XVI's belief that he inherited a divine right to be King and therefore impose his will upon the people of France. That was just as "self-evident" to the French monarchy and the aristocrats of Europe.
But you say these rights exist only in the here and now. Why? Recognizing them may be relatively recent in human history, but that doesn't mean they did not exist before John Locke or the seventeenth century or whatever marker you like of the beginning of the ideas of rights and natural law and all that jazz.
Because only then did the lower classes begin to fight for these "rights." Only in recent history did these abstract notions become reality through various means of overthrowing existing social order. In Britain it was through Parliament and the development of Trades Unions and the rise of the Liberal and Labour Parties. In the United States it was a long transition of the American Revolution, the Civil War, Civil Rights, etc. France had the French Revolution and numerous subsequent riots and revolutions including 1968. It is an ongoing process that is maleable and ever-changing, but not stale and constant as Locke or Madison insinuated.
I would certainly feel more comfortable responding to that if I had some clarification on what you mean. I think you've mentioned being Catholic before, and so I'm thinking this may be a point of semantic or possibly theological difference from what I am used to encountering in the Protestant side of Christianity. I think I know what you mean, but I would like to be sure.
It is reference to the one unpardonable sin. True, I drifted into theology, but we can be assured that this is constant and never-changing. Christ indicated that this sin is so grave as to be unpardonable, even in His supernatural mercy. Therefore we can assume that here there must be a choice, a "right" to decide whether to accept the Divine Paraclete or not.